I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each unfinished statement or question, four suggested answers marked A, B, C and D are given. Choose the one that you think best completes the statement or answers the question. Write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space on the answer sheet. (50 points, 1 point for each)

1._______ is NOT a political division on the island of Great Britain.

A. Ireland B. Wales

C. England D. Scotland

2._______ , King of Wessex, is known as “the father of British Navy” who founded a strong fleet which first beat the Danes at sea.

A. Alfred B. Henry

C. Edward D. William

3. The _______ Conquest in 1066 is perhaps the best known event in English history.

A. Roman B. Viking

C. Anglo-Saxon D. Norman

4. _______was the modern name given to the deadly bubonic plague, an epidemic disease spread by rat fleas in the 14th century.

A. Cholera B. Malaria

C. Black Death D. Yellow Fever

5. The name Wars of Roses was, in fact, coined by the great 19th century novelist_______.

A. Walter Scott B. Ben Johnson

C. Francis Bacon D. Edmund Spenser

6. Winston Churchill was heavily defeated at the general election of 1945 because _______.

A. he did not act as a great war leader

B. he failed to lead his country to victory

C. people wanted Britain to return to the politics of the 1920s and 30s

D. the Conservative Party’s traditional principles seemed old-fashioned

7._______ overthrew the feudal system in England and is generally regarded as the beginning of modern world history.

A. Puritan Revolution B. The War of Roses

C. The English Civil War D. The Glorious Revolution

8. The British Monarchy has been in existence for more than 1,000 years going back to at least the _______ century.

A. 8th B. 9th

C. 10th D. 11th

9. In the line of succession to the throne, _______ have precedence over other candidates (heirs).

A. the monarch’s sons B. the queen’s sisters

C. the monarch’s brothers D. the queen’s daughters

10._______ is NOT a constitutional part of the British Parliament.

A. The Cabinet B. The Sovereign

C. The House of Lords D. The House of Commons

11. Each session of the British Parliament usually lasts for_______.

A. one year B. two years

C. four years D. half a year

12. In the general election, an MP candidate must deposit 500 pounds, which is returned if he or she receives _______ or more of the vote cast.

A. 5% B. 10%

C. 15% D. 20%

13. Only in _______ are police officers allowed to carry firearms for personal protection and for duty purposes.

A. Wales B. England

C. Scotland D. Northern Ireland

14. In Great Britain, almost _______of medical prescription items are supplied free.

A. 50% B. 60%

C. 70% D. 80%

15. The two established churches in Britain are_______.

A. Church of England and Church of Wales

B. Church of Ireland and Church of England

C. Church of Ireland and Church of Scotland

D. Church of England and Church of Scotland

16. Full time first-degree university courses usually last _______ in England.

A. 2 years B. 3 years

C. 4 years D. 5 years

17. _______ is a “quality” newspaper in Britain.

A. The Sun B. The Times

C. The Daily Star D. The Daily Mirror

18. The home of golf is_______.

A. Wales B. England

C. Scotland D. Northern Ireland

19. In the United Kingdom, ministers are appointed by the Queen on the recommendation of_______.

A. the Prime Minister

B. the Lord Chancellor

C. the Duke of Edinburgh

D. the Speaker of the House of Commons

20. _______was the British Prime Minister who adopted appeasement policy to Nazi Germany during the Second World War.

A. Tony Blair B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Winston Churchill D. Neville Chamberlain

21. The percentage of immigrants in the United States varies greatly from region to region with the _______United States accounting for 14.8% of foreign-born population in the 1980s.

A. Southern B. Northern

C. Western D. Eastern

22. In the U.S. the high birth rate during the “baby boom” mainly refers to the period _______.

A. 1920—1930 B. 1946—1964

C. 1972—1982 D. 1980—1990

23. In 1607 the first English colony in America was founded at Jamestown,_______.

A. Maine B. Virginia

C. Massachusetts D. New Hampshire

24. After the United States bought the _______ for only $15 million, its territory almost doubled.

A. Ohio Territory B. Gadsden Territory

C. Louisiana Territory D. New Mexico Territory

25. When Abraham Lincoln was elected president, the southern states broke away and formed a new nation called_______.

A. the Confederate Unions

B. the Federal States of America

C. the Federal Union of America

D. the Confederate States of America

26. The Civil War ended with the passing of the _______to the Constitution, which banned slavery in the United States.

A. Tenth Amendment B. Eleventh Amendment

C. Twelfth Amendment D. Thirteenth Amendment

27. Which of the following statements is NOT a reason to explain the rapid growth of capitalism after the Civil War?

A. The U.S. federal government put low taxes on foreign imports.

B. There was enough labor supply for the development of American industries.

C. Science and invention played a key role in accelerating America’s industrial development.

D. With the war over, both foreign and domestic capital became available for investment.

28. The Peace Conference after World War I in 1918 was dominated by the Big Four, that is _______.

A. the United States, Britain, Japan and Italy

B. the United States, Russia, France and Italy

C. the United States, Britain, France and Italy

D. the United States, Britain, France and China

29. Which of the following statements about Franklin Roosevelt is NOT true?

A. He was a great communicator.

B. He had a sure sense of what seemed practical or possible.

C. He called out the army to drive out the World War I veterans.

D. His fireside chats over the radio were listened to by millions of people.

30. The incident that made the United States formally declare war against the Axis Powers was _______.

A. the Great Depression

B. the attack on the Soviet Union

C. the Japanese invasion of China

D. the bombing of Pearl Harbor in 1941

31. During the Cuban Missile Crisis in 1962, President _______finally decided to use naval force to prevent military material and arms from going into Cuba.

A. Nixon B. Johnson

C. Kennedy D. Eisenhower

32. After the Geneva Conference on Indochina in 1954, the United States replaced _______as the main force in providing aid for South Vietnam.

A. Japan B. Britain

C. France D. Turkey

33. In the United States, amendments must have the approval of _______of the states before they enter into force.

A. one-third B. two-thirds

C. two-fifths D. three-fourths

34. The U.S. Constitution provides that the _______shall be President of Senate.

A. President B. Chief Justice

C. Vice President D. Attorney General

35. In the United States, _______period of the party system arose in the last years of the 18th century over the debate on the ratification of the Constitution.

A. the first B. the second

C. the third D. the fourth

36. Under the Constitution, _______is the federal official primarily responsible for the relations with foreign nations.

A. the president B. the federal chief justice

C. the Speaker of the House D. the Senate Majority Leader

37. In the U.S., the revenues for public schools primarily come from_______.

A. states and localities B. religious communities

C. state boards of education D. federal government and states

38. American higher education began with the founding of _______in 1636.

A. Yale University B. Harvard College

C. University of Virginia D. Princeton University

39. Rip Van Winkle is a character from the famous book _______written by Washington Irving.

A. The Sketch BookB. The Scarlet Letter

C. A History of New YorkD. Poor Richard’s Almanac

40. Which of the following statements about New Year’s Day is NOT true?

A. In the U.S. it is a nationally observed holiday.

B. It is thought of as a good time to make the New Year decisions.

C. Most people like to hold big parties and make pumpkin lanterns on that day.

D. The celebration of this holiday begins the night before—on New Year’s Eve.

41. The Irish lowland _______.

A. is a rocky area

B. has many high mountains

C. is covered by green forests

D. has different landscapes from place to place

42. Which of the following statements about the weather of Ireland is true?

A. It has a lot of rainfall.

B. It often snows in winter.

C. It is a country of sunshine.

D. It is quite windy throughout the year.

43. Today, Ireland is _______.

A. a colony of Great Britain

B. a free state within Great Britain

C. an independent and sovereign state

D. a member of the British commonwealth

44. The city that has an ice-free harbor as Canada’s major outlet to the Pacific Ocean is_______.

A. Ottawa B. Quebec

C. Toronto D. Vancouver

45. Nowadays, _______are the natives in Canada.

A. French-speaking people

B. English-speaking people

C. the Canadian Indians and Inuit

D. the early immigrants from Europe

46. Politically Australia is divided into six states and Sydney is the capital of_______.

A. Victoria B. Queensland

C. South Australia D. New South Wales

47. In Australia, about a quarter of the national income is from the _______ of Western Australia.

A. lumbering B. agriculture

C. shipbuilding D. mineral export

48. Earthquakes in New Zealand do not cause many deaths because of _______.

A. the dormant volcanoes

B. the concrete building materials

C. the small population in many areas

D. the mild magnitude of the earthquakes

49. New Zealand remains green all year round because_______.

A. there is enough bushes

B. the trees are deciduous

C. its native trees are evergreen

D. the trees can receive enough sunshine

50. The reason why Maori workers moved to the cities to make a living after World War II is that_______.

A. they lost their land

B. they learned skills during the war

C. they lost their social and cultural links

D. they regained their identity as the native people

II. Give a one-sentence answer to each of the following questions. Write your answer in the corresponding space on the answer sheet. (30 points, 3 points for each)

51. On which day does Easter fall?

52. What are the four Scottish universities established in the 14th and 15th centuries?

53. What kinds of courses require five-year study in British universities?

54. What was King Edward (1042-1066) known as?

55. Give an example to illustrate the highly aggressive and intolerant nationalism in 1919 and 1920 in the United States.

56. What was the key problem that affected the progress in U.S.-China relations from 1972 to 1979?

57. What are the most memorable words Lincoln said in a short speech on the occasion of dedicating the national cemetery at Gettysburg in 1863?

58. What is the American tradition of laissez faire?

59. What explains the absence of large forests in Australia?

60. Who is the head of the Australian government?

III. Explain each of the following terms in English. Write your answer in the corresponding space on the answer sheet in around 40 words. (20 points, 5 points for each)

61. Industrial Revolution

62. Bank Holiday

63. Amerigo Vespucci

64. Research universities